daughtry76
daughtry76
01-03-2018
Mathematics
contestada
why does 16 to the power of 0 equal 1?
Respuesta :
angicarl
angicarl
01-03-2018
16 to the power of 0 is one because any number to the 0 power is 1. This is because you aren't multiply 16 (or any number) by itself any amount of times.
Answer Link
AnimeBrainly
AnimeBrainly
01-03-2018
16^0 = 1 because
any number to the zero power is just the product of no numbers at all, which = 1.
hope this helps
Answer Link
VER TODAS LAS RESPUESTAS ( 77+ )
Otras preguntas
what value of y makes the equation below true?8y-1=31a)1b)4c)8d)20
from what side of the vessel should you never anchor
Solve each system of equations without graphing: 6t-9u=10 and 2t+3u=4
What year did betty white host saturday night live?
why is multiplying by powers of 10 easy? (30 pts) please answer thank u
PLEASE HELP VERY IMPORTANT!!!
Whats is - 4x + 18 > 2x+12 put into interval notation ?
The ratio of the number of model cars that jim owns to the number of models cars Terrence owns is 4:3. Terrence owns 36 model cars. How many model cars does Jim
Correct the errors, there are 5
According to the kinetic molecular theory, which statement describes the particles in a sample of an ideal gas? A. The particles are constantly moving in circul